Download CompTIA CSA+.CS0-003.Marks4Sure.2024-12-05.349q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: CS0-003
Exam Name: CompTIA CSA+
Date: Dec 05, 2024
File Size: 9 MB
Downloads: 3

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Question 1
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).
  1.   Hostname
  2.   Missing KPI
  3.   CVE details
  4.   POC availability
  5.   loCs
  6.   npm identifier
Correct answer: CE
Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management , Section: Policy; , Section: What is a patch PolicyPatch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024 management policy?
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management , Section: Policy; , Section: What is a patch PolicyPatch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024 management policy?
Question 2
A security administrator needs to import Pll data records from the production environment to the test environment for testing purposes. Which of the following would best protect data confidentiality?
  1.   Data masking
  2.   Hashing
  3.   Watermarking
  4.   Encoding
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data
Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data
Question 3
An analyst is designing a message system for a bank. The analyst wants to include a feature that allows the recipient of a message to prove to a third party that the message came from the sender Which of the following information security goals is the analyst most likely trying to achieve?
  1.   Non-repudiation
  2.   Authentication
  3.   Authorization
  4.   Integrity
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Non-repudiation ensures that a message sender cannot deny the authenticity of their sent message. This is crucial in banking communications for legal and security reasons.The goal of allowing a message recipient to prove the message's origin is non-repudiation. This ensures that the sender cannot deny the authenticity of their message. Non-repudiation is a fundamental aspect of secure messaging systems, especially in banking and financial communications.
Non-repudiation ensures that a message sender cannot deny the authenticity of their sent message. This is crucial in banking communications for legal and security reasons.
The goal of allowing a message recipient to prove the message's origin is non-repudiation. This ensures that the sender cannot deny the authenticity of their message. Non-repudiation is a fundamental aspect of secure messaging systems, especially in banking and financial communications.
Question 4
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
  1.   CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L
  2.   CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
  3.   CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
  4.   CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
Question 5
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
  1.   A mean time to remediate of 30 days
  2.   A mean time to detect of 45 days
  3.   A mean time to respond of 15 days
  4.   Third-party application testing
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
Question 6
Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known sources?
  1.   Hacktivist threat
  2.   Advanced persistent threat
  3.   Unintentional insider threat
  4.   Nation-state threat
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments from known sources.ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security | Threats, Best Practices | Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.
An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments from known sources.
ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security | Threats, Best Practices | Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.
Question 7
Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon. Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the tables below:
Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?
  1.   rogers
  2.   brady
  3.   brees
  4.   manning
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. 
Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.
Question 8
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
Which of the following should be remediated first?
  1.   SQL injection
  2.   RFI
  3.   XSS
  4.   Code injection
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface   Arachni/arachni Wiki   GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. 
These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. 
Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface   Arachni/arachni Wiki   GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
Question 9
A payroll department employee was the target of a phishing attack in which an attacker impersonated a department director and requested that direct deposit information be updated to a new account. Afterward, a deposit was made into the unauthorized account. Which of the following is one of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of the attack?
  1.   Scan the employee's computer with virus and malware tools.
  2.   Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event
  3.   Contact human resources and recommend the termination of the employee.
  4.   Assign security awareness training to the employee involved in the incident.
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
In case of a phishing attack, it’s crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255.
In case of a phishing attack, it’s crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255.
Question 10
Due to an incident involving company devices, an incident responder needs to take a mobile phone to the lab for further investigation. Which of the following tools should be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported? (Select two).
  1.   Signal-shielded bag
  2.   Tamper-evident seal
  3.   Thumb drive
  4.   Crime scene tape
  5.   Write blocker
  6.   Drive duplicator
Correct answer: AB
Explanation:
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: , Section: Mobile device forensics Acquisition
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: , Section: Mobile device forensics Acquisition
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